Question for Carl Moreland

[Carl-NC]

Originally Posted by hung

You insist in using brute magnetic NMR to explain what happens to MFD type LRLs. This is non sense.

No, I don't. Other people do, such as Chuckie, but not me. NMR has nothing to do with LRLs.

NMR can be achieved by other means such as optical NMR and circularly polarized RF beam.

Doesn't matter how you achieve precession, the equation still applies. Also the end frequencies for a given ambient magnetic field. If this were not true, then proton precession magnetometers would not work.

If you don't like my answer to Zocky, you are free to provide a better answer instead of complaining about mine.

[Tim Williams]

Carl is right. Use the formula and calculate from this site using different magnetic fields.

http://nmr.magnet.fsu.edu/resources/nuclei/Au.htm

Tim

[hung]

Originally Posted by Carl-NC

NMR has nothing to do with LRLs.

It does for MFD type LRLs.
Not the way you think.
And much more than you think.

Doesn't matter how you achieve precession, the equation still applies.

No. It's well different for RF NMR.

F(res)= 1.532 x 10 power + 25 I / om (squared)

F(res)=probe resonance angular frequency
om = pump angular frequency
I = pump intensity(watts per square meter)

[Carl-NC]

"If you don't like my answer to Zocky, you are free to provide a better answer instead of complaining about mine."

[hung]

I'm not complaining about your answer.

Now, answering your question, what Carl writes tough correct from a certain point of view, has nothing to do with the way the H3tec works.

I'm just saying that MFD type LRLs work on a different principle of NMR other than you think manufacturers claim and if your report on H3tec for some reason infers that the device cannot work as I imagine you stated, it simply might not reflect the truth and it's not accurate since the LRL is reported to be working fine by users.

[Carl-NC]

Originally Posted by hung

I'm not complaining about your answer.

See posts #13 & #16 above. Res ipsa loquitur.

[Rudy]

Originally Posted by hung

It does for MFD type LRLs.
Not the way you think.
And much more than you think.



No. It's well different for RF NMR.

F(res)= 1.532 x 10 power + 25 I / om (squared)

F(res)=probe resonance angular frequency
om = pump angular frequency
I = pump intensity(watts per square meter)

Above formula makes no sense as written. Can you please add parenthesis where appropriate, to make it unambiguous?

[Qiaozhi]

Originally Posted by Rudy;129926 - in reference to Hung's posted formula.

Above formula makes no sense as written. Can you please add parenthesis where appropriate, to make it unambiguous?

The problem is that he doesn't know anything about Latex or NMR.

[Rudy]

Originally Posted by Qiaozhi

The problem is that he doesn't know anything about Latex or NMR.

I suspect you may be right, I was just giving him the benefit of the doubt. Heck, he can even write the formula in anything and then post it as a GIF for that matter.